Wednesday, 29th April, 2026 At 2.30pm

Thirteenth Parliament

Fifth Session

Afternoon Sitting

(No. 38)

(768)

REPUBLIC OF KENYA

THIRTEENTH PARLIAMENT – (FIFTH SESSION)

THE NATIONAL ASSEMBLY

ORDERS OF THE DAY

WEDNESDAY, APRIL 29, 2026 AT 2.30 P.M.

ORDER OF BUSINESS

PRAYERS

1. Administration of Oath

1. 2. Communication from the Chair
2. 3. Messages
3. 4. Petitions
4. 5. Papers
5. 6. Notices of Motion
6. 7. Questions and Statements
7. 8*. COMMITTEE OF THE WHOLE HOUSE

The Forest Conservation and Management (Amendment) Bill (National Assembly Bill No. 38 of 2025) (The Leader of the Majority Party) (If not concluded on Wednesday, April 29, 2026 – Morning Sitting)

9*.

SPECIAL MOTION –

CONSIDERATION OF A NOMINEE

FOR

APPOINTMENT

AS

THE

AMBASSADOR TO THE VATICAN, THE

HOLY SEE

(The Chairperson, Departmental Committee on Defence, Intelligence and Foreign Relations)

THAT, taking into consideration the findings of the Departmental Committee on Defence, Intelligence and Foreign Relations in its report on the approval hearing of a Nominee for Appointment as the Ambassador to Vatican, the Holy See, laid on the Table of the House on Tuesday, 28th April 2026, and pursuant to the provisions of Article 132(2)(e) of the Constitution, section 20(2) of the Foreign Service Act, Cap 185E and sections 3 and 8 of the Public Appointments (Parliamentary Approval) Act, Cap. 7F, this House approves the appointment of Dr. Julius Murori Mbijiwe, Ph.D. as the Ambassador to Vatican, The Holy See.

.….……../10*

(No. 38)

WEDNESDAY, APRIL 29, 2026

(769)

1. 10*. MOTION –

APPROVAL OF THE MEDIATED VERSION OF THE

NATIONAL DISASTER RISK MANAGEMENT BILL

(NATIONAL ASSEMBLY BILL NO. 24 OF 2023)

(The Chairperson, Departmental Committee on the Mediation Committee on the National Disaster Risk Management Bill, 2023)

THAT, pursuant to the provisions of Article 113(2) of the Constitution and Standing Order 150(3), this House adopts the Report of the Mediated version of the National Disaster Risk Management Bill (National Assembly Bill No. 24 of 2023), laid on the Table of the House on Tuesday, 28th April 2026, and approves the Mediated version of the National Disaster Risk Management Bill (National Assembly Bill No. 24 of 2023).

1. 11*. MOTION – REPORT ON PUBLIC PETITION NO. 021 OF 2025

REGARDING ACCESS TO HEALTHCARE BY CANCER

PATIENTS IN THE COUNTRY

(The Chairperson, Departmental Committee on Health)

THAT, this House adopts the Report of the Departmental Committee on Health on its consideration of Public Petition No. 021 of 2025 regarding access to healthcare by cancer patients in the country, laid on the Table of the House on Wednesday, 8th April 2026. (Resumption of debate adjourned on Tuesday, April 28, 2026) (Balance of time – 1 hour 5 minutes)

1. 12*. MOTION – REPORT ON INSPECTION VISIT TO THE EAST

AFRICAN SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY COMMISSION

AND THE EAST AFRICAN HEALTH RESEARCH

COMMISSION

(The Chairperson, Committee on Regional Integration)

THAT, this House adopts the Report of the Select Committee on Regional Integration on its inspection visit to the East African Science and Technology Commission in Rwanda and the East African Health Research Commission in Burundi, laid on the Table of the House on Wednesday, 5th November 2025.

1. 13*. MOTION – REPORT OF KENYA DELEGATION TO THE 151ST

ASSEMBLY OF THE INTER-PARLIAMENTARY UNION

(IPU) AND RELATED MEETINGS

(The Leader of the Delegation)

THAT, this House notes the Report of the Kenya Delegation to the 151st Assembly of the Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU) and related meetings held in Geneva, Switzerland, from 19th to 23rd October 2025, laid on the Table of the House on Wednesday, 11th March 2026. .….……../14*

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WEDNESDAY, APRIL 29, 2026

(770)

1. 14*. MOTION – SECOND REPORT ON THE STATUS OF REPORTS ON

PETITIONS AND RESOLUTIONS

(The Chairperson, Committee on Implementation) THAT, this House adopts the Second Report of the Select Committee on Implementation on status of Reports on Petitions and Resolutions passed by the House, laid on the Table of the House on Thursday, 26th October 2023.

1. 15*. MOTION – REPORT ON INSPECTION VISITS TO FOURTEEN (14)

SPECIAL NEEDS SCHOOLS IN SPECIFIED COUNTIES

(The Chairperson, Select Committee on National Cohesion and Equal Opportunity) THAT, this House adopts the Report of the Select Committee on National Cohesion and Equal Opportunity on the Inspection Visits to fourteen (14) special needs schools in specified Counties, laid on the Table of the House on Tuesday, 30th July 2024.

*Denotes Orders of the Day*

……......../Notices*

(No. 38)

WEDNESDAY, APRIL 29, 2026

(771)

N O T I C E S

I. THE FOREST CONSERVATION AND MANAGEMENT

(AMENDMENT) BILL (NATIONAL ASSEMBLY BILL NO.

38 OF 2025)

NOTICE is given that the Chairperson of the Departmental Committee on Environment, Forestry and Mining intends to move the following amendments to the Forest Conservation and Management (Amendment) Bill, 2025 (National Assembly Bill No. 38 of 2025) at the Committee Stage—

CLAUSE 2

THAT clause 2 of the Bill be amended— (a) in paragraph (a) by deleting the definition of the term “indigenous forest”; (b) in paragraph (c) by— (i) deleting the definition of the term “biodiversity hotspot”; (ii) deleting the definition of the term “forest reference level”; (iii) deleting the definition of the term “forest technology”; (iv) deleting the definition of the term “natural capital accounting”; (v) deleting the definition of the term “tree canopy cover”; (vi) deleting the definition of the term “watershed”; (vii) deleting the definition of the term “water tower”; (viii) deleting the definition of the term “ecosystem services” and substituting therefor the following new definition—

“ecosystem services” means the benefits humans obtain from natural ecosystems, arising from interactions between living organisms and their environment and include the habitat for biodiversity, provision of essential resources like food and water, the regulation of environmental conditions such as climate and water quality, the support of life-sustaining processes like nutrient cycling and soil formation, tourism services such as recreation, hiking and aesthetic enjoyment and cultural benefits including rites of passage, prayers and other cultural activities; and

(ix) inserting the following new definitions in their proper alphabetical sequence —

“buffer zone” means a designated transition area of vegetation not exceeding one hundred metres wide separating a forest from other land use types intended to reduce external pressures and protect forest areas;

(No. 38)

WEDNESDAY, APRIL 29, 2026 (772)

“National Safeguards Information System” means a mechanism used to collect, monitor, and report how environmental and social standards are implemented in forest-related activities ensuring the protection of biodiversity, ecosystems, and the rights and livelihoods of local and indigenous communities; “Secretary” means the Secretary of Forest Regulation provided in section 29B; and “timber grading” means the process of classifying wood based on its quality, strength, and appearance according to established regulations made under this Act;”

CLAUSE 5

THAT clause 5 of the Bill be amended by deleting the proposed new paragraph (nc) and substituting therefore the following new paragraph— “(nc) provide technical assistance to the county governments in the development of agroforestry and commercial forestry in community land.”

NEW CLAUSES

THAT the Bill be amended by inserting the following new clauses immediately after clause 5— Amendment of section 9 of Cap 385. “5A. Section 9 of the principal Act is amended in subsection (1) by deleting the words “nominated by a national body representing” appearing in paragraph (g)(ii) and substituting therefor the words “a representative of a registered community forest association;” Amendment of section 14 of Cap 385. “5B. Section 14 of the principal Act is amended in subsection (2) by deleting paragraph (c) and substituting therefor the following new paragraph— (c) has a master’s degree in any of the following fields— (i) forestry; (ii) natural resource management; (iii) environmental studies; (iv) strategic management; (v) law; (vi) economics; or (vii) public administration.”

(No. 38)

WEDNESDAY, APRIL 29, 2026

(773)

CLAUSE 6

THAT clause 6 of the Bill be amended— (a) in paragraph (a) by inserting the words “responsible for matters related to internal security” immediately after the words “The Cabinet Secretary” appearing in the proposed new subsection (1); (b) by inserting the following new subsection immediately after the proposed new subsection (5)— “(6) Without prejudice to the foregoing, the provisions of Part III and Part IV of the Independent Policing and Oversight Authority Act, Cap 86 shall apply, with the necessary modifications, to uniformed and disciplined officers under this Act.”

CLAUSE 7

THAT the Bill be amended by deleting clause 7.

CLAUSE 8

THAT the Bill be amended by deleting clause 8.

CLAUSE 10

THAT clause 10 of the Bill be amended — (a) in the proposed New Part IIIA of the Bill by deleting the word “DIRECTOR” and substituting therefor the word “SECRETARY”;

(b) by deleting the proposed new section 29A and substituting therefor the following new section— Directorate.

“29A. (1) There is established the Directorate of Forest Regulation which shall be an office in the public service. (2) The Directorate shall be headed by the Secretary of Forest Regulation.”

(c) by inserting the following new section immediately after the proposed new section 29A—

(No. 38)

WEDNESDAY, APRIL 29, 2026

(774)

Appointment of Secretary. “29AA. (1) The Secretary of Forest Regulation shall be competitively recruited and appointed by the Public Service Commission. (2) A person shall be qualified to be appointed as a Secretary of Forest Regulation, if that person— (a) is a citizen of Kenya; (b) holds an undergraduate degree from a university recognized in Kenya; (c) has a postgraduate degree in any of the following fields— (i) forestry; (ii) botany; (iii) environment; (iv) natural resources; or (v) plant ecology. (d) has had at least fifteen years proven experience in the relevant field; and (e) meets the requirements of Chapter Six of the Constitution.”

(d) by deleting the proposed new section 29B and substituting therefor the following new section—

Functions of the Secretary. “29B. (1) The Secretary of Forest Regulation shall— (a) advise the Cabinet Secretary on the development of national standards, codes, procedures and guidelines for participatory forest management, forest utilisation and forestry, forest products and services, and traceability systems for forest produce; (b) issue regulatory guidelines to persons and entities within the forestry sector, and make recommendations to county governments and other public bodies on forestry matters; (c) monitor, inspect and audit compliance with this Act and the applicable standards in forest management and protection; (d) advise and make recommendations to the Cabinet Secretary, the Service, county governments and other agencies on enforcement actions, suspension, variation or revocation of licences; (e) establish and coordinate a national forest compliance and enforcement framework in consultation with relevant agencies; (f) register, license and regulate forest certification experts, timber graders, and such other professionals as may be prescribed by any written law; (g) develop professional standards and codes of conduct for licensed professionals under this Act;

(No. 38)

WEDNESDAY, APRIL 29, 2026 (775)

(h) ensure linkage of the national forestry registry with national systems, including carbon registry mechanisms under the Climate Change Act; (i) develop reporting requirements for actors in the forestry sector; (j) receive, review and analyse reports relating to forest-related activities; (k) advise the Cabinet Secretary on regulatory risks, compliance status and corrective measures within the forestry sector; (l) develop and monitor strategies for achieving and maintaining at least ten per cent tree and forest cover; (m) monitor and provide regulatory oversight on ecosystem service payments, benefit-sharing mechanisms and other climate-related forestry initiatives; (n) establish and maintain the National Safeguards Information System; (o) receive and investigate complaints made to it by any individual or entity with respect to any matter concerning forestry management and make recommendations to relevant authorities; (p) prepare and publish annual reports on the state of regulation in the forestry sector and submit to the Cabinet Secretary for tabling before Parliament; and (q) perform such other functions as may be assigned by the Cabinet Secretary or provided under this Act or any other written law. (2) The Secretary of Forest Regulation or a duly authorized officer may— (a) issue compliance notices requiring remedial action for purposes of compliance with this Act; (b) require any person or entity to produce records, data or information necessary for regulatory oversight; (c) at all reasonable times enter and inspect any forestry activities in any premises or installations; (d) conduct audits and investigations to confirm compliance with this Act and applicable standards; (e) impose administrative sanctions to forest certification experts, timber graders, and such other professionals licensed by the Secretary; (g) recommend to the relevant authority the suspension, variation or revocation of licenses, permits or approvals; (h) refer any matter for prosecution to the relevant authority with respect to any offences committed under this Act; and (j) perform such other acts as may be necessary for the effective discharge of the functions of the Directorate.” (e) in the proposed new section 29C by—

(No. 38)

WEDNESDAY, APRIL 29, 2026

(776)

(i) deleting the word “Director” appearing in subsection (1) and substituting therefor the word “Secretary”; and (ii) deleting the words “office of the Director” appearing in subsection (2) and substituting therefor the word “Directorate”; (f) in the proposed new section 29D by deleting the word “Director” appearing in subsection (1) and substituting therefor the word “Secretary”; (g) in the proposed new section 29E by deleting the word “Director” appearing in subsection (1) and substituting therefor the word “Secretary”; and (h) in the proposed new section 29I by—

(a) deleting paragraph (g) and substituting therefor the following new paragraph—

“(g) three other persons appointed by the Cabinet Secretary, out of whom— (i) one shall be nominated by the Forestry Society of Kenya; (ii) one shall be a member of a registered community forest association; and (iii) one shall represent the forest industry;’’

(i) in the proposed new section 29N by deleting paragraph (f); (j) in the proposed new section 29S(2) by deleting paragraph (a) and substituting therefor the following new paragraph— “(a) possesses a Doctorate degree in any of the following fields— (i) forestry; (ii) botany; (iii) environmental studies; (iv) natural resources; (v) public administration; (vi) economics; (vii) strategic management; or (viii) plant ecology. (k) by deleting the proposed new section 29T; and (l) in the proposed new section 29W by deleting the word “Parliament” appearing in paragraph (a) and substituting therefor the words “the National Assembly”

(No. 38)

WEDNESDAY, APRIL 29, 2026

(777)

CLAUSE 11

THAT the Bill be amended by deleting clause 11 and substituting therefor the following new clause—

Amendment of section 42 of Cap.385

1. 11. The principal Act is amended by inserting the

following new subsection immediately after subsection (3)—

(4) A person responsible for a public forest or community forest shall designate specific areas of the forest as buffer zones to reduce negative edge effects and enhance ecosystem services.

CLAUSE 12

THAT clause 12 of the Bill be amended in the proposed new section 43A by inserting the words “relevant lead agencies” immediately after the words “collaboration with” appearing in subsection (2).

CLAUSE 14

THAT the Bill be amended by deleting clause 14 and substituting therefor the following new clause—

Amendment of section 55 of Cap.385

1. 14. The principal Act is amended by deleting Section 55

and substituting thereof the following new section—

Tree growing initiatives.

“55. The Cabinet Secretary shall plan and execute programmes necessary for observing tree growing initiatives and other international forest events.”

CLAUSE 15

THAT Clause 15 of the Bill be amended by inserting the following new paragraph immediately after paragraph (b)— (c) the provisions of subsection (2)(da) and (db) shall not apply to private forests.

(No. 38)

WEDNESDAY, APRIL 29, 2026

(778)

NEW CLAUSE 16A

THAT the Bill be amended by inserting the following new clause immediately after clause 16— Amendment of section 59 of Cap 385. “16A. Section 59 of the principal Act is amended by deleting subsection (2) and substituting therefor the following new subsection— (2) Any person authorized by the Cabinet Secretary to operate as a timber grader or valuer immediately before the commencement of this Act shall continue operating as a timber grader or valuer and shall be deemed to have been authorized by the Secretary of Forest Regulation upon commencement of this Act.”

CLAUSE 18

THAT Clause 18 of the Bill be amended by deleting paragraph (a).

CLAUSE 20

THAT the Bill be amended by deleting clause 20 and substituting therefor the following new clause — Amendment of Section 71 of Cap 385. “20. Section 71 of the principal Act is amended — (a) by deleting subsection (1) and substituting therefor the following new subsection— (1) The Cabinet Secretary shall make regulations necessary for the carrying out or giving effect to this Act. (b) in subsection (2) by inserting the following new paragraphs immediately after paragraph (t)— (u) management of forest carbon including the Reduced Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation nesting; (v) nursery certification, seed and seedling standards; (w) forest data, research, and information management systems; (x) the framework for awarding an inventor or innovator by the Institute; (y) agroforestry and farm forestry systems; and (z) buffer zones and boundary tree planting.”

(No. 38)

WEDNESDAY, APRIL 29, 2026

(779)

NEW CLAUSE 20A

THAT the Bill be amended by inserting the following new clause immediately after clause 20— Amendment of section 72 of Cap 385. “20A. Section 72 of the principal Act is amended by inserting the following new subsection immediately after subsection (2)— (3) The Chief Conservator of Forests shall, on a quarterly basis, submit to the Secretary of Forest Regulation copies of the registers of forest management and conservation activities specified in subsection (1).”

II. MEDIATED

VERSION

OF

THE

NATIONAL

DISASTER

RISK

MANAGEMENT

BILL

(NATIONAL ASSEMBLY BILL NO. 24 OF 2023)

THE NATIONAL DISASTER RISK MANAGEMENT BILL, 2023

A Bill for AN ACT of Parliament to establish the National Disaster Risk Management Authority and County Disaster Risk Management Committees; to provide a legal framework for the co-ordination of disaster risk management activities; and for connected purposes ENACTED by the Parliament of Kenya, as follows—

PART I—PRELIMINARY

1. 1. This Act may be cited as the National

Disaster Risk Management Act, 2023. Short title.

1. 2. In this Act, unless the context

otherwise requires— Interpretation. “Authority” means the National Disaster Risk Management Authority established under section 5; “Board” means the Board of the National Disaster Risk Management Authority constituted under section 9; “Cabinet Secretary” means the Cabinet Secretary responsible for matters relating to disaster risk management; “Centre” means a County Disaster Risk Management Centre established under section 36;

(No. 38) WEDNESDAY, APRIL 29, 2026 (780)

“climate change adaptation” means adjustment to ecological, social or economic systems in response to actual or expected climatic impacts in order to moderate potential damages or to benefit from opportunities associated with climate change; “climate change” means a change in the climate system which is caused by significant changes in the concentration of greenhouse gases as a consequence of human activities and which is in addition to natural climate change that has been observed during a considerable period; “County Executive Committee Member” means the county executive committee member responsible for matters relating to disaster risk management; “County Committee” means the County Disaster Risk Management Committee established under section 31 “Director-General” means the Director- General of the Authority appointed under section 20; “disaster” means a progressive or sudden, widespread, localized, natural or human-caused occurrence which— (a) causes or threatens to cause— (i) death, injury or disease; (ii) damage to property, infrastructure or the environment; or (iii) significant disruption of the life of a community; and (b) is of a magnitude that exceeds the ability of those affected by the disaster to cope with its effects using only their own resources; “disaster risk” means the potential loss of life, injury, or destroyed or damaged assets which could occur to a system, society or a community in a specific period of time, determined probabilistically as a function of hazard, exposure, vulnerability and capacity; “disaster risk management” means a continuous and integrated multisectoral, multi- disciplinary process of developing, planning and implementing of policies, strategies and measures aimed at –

(No. 38) WEDNESDAY, APRIL 29, 2026 (781) (a) having in place a permanent structure of disaster risk management at the county and national level; (b) identifying and mapping disaster prone or vulnerable areas, situations or people; (c) issuing early-warning of imminent disaster; (d) relocating populations in case of imminent disasters; (e) preventing or reducing the risk of disasters; (f) mitigating the severity or consequences of disasters; (g) protecting the most vulnerable populations in disasters including women, children, persons with disabilities and the elderly; (h) emergency preparedness; (i) a rapid and effective response to disasters; (j) post-disaster recovery, restoration and rehabilitation; and (k) using technology to better manage disasters. “disaster risk reduction” means either a policy goal or objective, and the strategic and instrumental measures employed for— (a) anticipating future disaster risk; and (b) reducing existing exposure, hazard or vulnerability; “early warning system” means an integrated system of hazard monitoring, forecasting and prediction, disaster risk assessment, communication and preparedness activities, systems and processes that enables individuals, communities, governments, businesses and others to take timely action to reduce disaster risks in advance of hazardous events; “emergency” means an actual or imminent situation that arises suddenly, posing an immediate threat to life, health, property, environment, infrastructure, economic stability or public order that – (a) requires prompt coordinated action to protect life and property and restore essential services; (b) maybe caused by natural, technological, and human-induced health or industrial incidents; (c) exceeds normal response capabilities requiring multi-agency intervention. “emergency preparedness” means—

(No. 38) WEDNESDAY, APRIL 29, 2026 (782) (a) measures in place which enable organs of the national and county governments and other institutions involved in disaster risk management, the private sector, communities and individuals to mobilize, organize and provide relief measures to deal with an impending or current disaster or the effects of a disaster; and (b) the knowledge and capacities developed by governments, professional response and recovery organizations, communities and individuals to effectively anticipate, respond to and recover from the impacts of likely, imminent or current hazard events or condition improving resilience; (c) having in place a policy at the national and county level on disaster response; (d) having in place a structure at the county and national government level that enables a quick response in cases of disaster; (e) having in place a monitoring system at the national and county level on disaster risk; (f) having in place an early-warning system at the national and county level on disaster risk; (g) having in place a continuous public education and awareness of the public on disaster risk response including emergency numbers and centres; (h) having in place facilities and equipment for effective and quick response to disasters including fire tracks, land, water and air ambulatory services; and (i) establishing a centre for emergency convergence during disasters. “emergency responder” refers to a person involved in an organized response to a potential, actual or impending emergency, including but not limited to firefighters, police officers, emergency medical personnel, national government emergency management personnel, county government emergency management personnel, military personnel or

(No. 38) WEDNESDAY, APRIL 29, 2026 (783) an officer of a recognized humanitarian organization dealing with disaster response; “financial year” means the period of twelve months ending on the thirtieth day of June in each year; “hazard” means a process, phenomenon or human activity that may cause loss of life, injury or other health impacts, property damage, social and economic disruption or environmental degradation; “mitigation” means the lessening or minimizing of the adverse impacts of a hazardous event; “preparedness” means the knowledge and capacities developed by governments, professional response and recovery organizations, communities and individuals to effectively anticipate, respond to, and recover from, the impacts of likely, imminent or current hazard events or conditions; “prevention” means activities and measures to avoid existing and new disaster risks; “reconstruction” means the medium and long- term rebuilding and sustainable restoration of resilient critical infrastructures, services, housing, facilities and livelihoods required for the full functioning of a community or a society affected by a disaster, aligning with the principles of sustainable development and “build back better”, to avoid or reduce future disaster risk; “recovery” means the restoring or improving of livelihoods and health, as well as economic, physical, social, cultural and environmental assets, systems and activities, of a disaster- affected community or society, aligning with the principles of sustainable development and “build back better”, to avoid or reduce future disaster risk; “response” means actions taken directly before, during or immediately after a disaster in order to save lives, reduce health impacts, ensure public safety and meet the basic subsistence needs of the people affected; “risk” means the combination of the probability of an event and its negative consequences;

(No. 38) WEDNESDAY, APRIL 29, 2026 (784) “risk assessment” means the methodology used to determine the nature and extent of risk by analysing potential hazards and evaluating existing conditions of vulnerability which may potentially harm exposed people, property, services, livelihoods and the environment “Summit” has the meaning assigned under section 2 of the Intergovernmental Relations Act, Cap,265F “the two levels of government” means all relevant departments and agencies of the national and county governments; “vulnerability” means the conditions determined by physical, social, economic and environmental factors or processes which increase the susceptibility of an individual, a community, assets or systems to the impacts of hazards.

Cap.412

1. 3. The object of this Act is to—

(a) provide for a legislative framework for disaster risk management; (b) enhance effective and co-ordinated disaster preparedness, prevention, response, mitigation and recovery; (c) provide for appropriate and dignified assistance and relief to victims and casualties of disasters; (d) promote inclusiveness and a multidisciplinary and multisectoral approach to disaster management; (e) reduce disaster risks and vulnerabilities at the national and county levels of government; and (f) enhance resilience to the impacts of disaster risks and climate change at both the national and county levels. Objects of the Act.

1. 4. The guiding principles to disaster risk

management shall be— (a) a comprehensive approach to Disaster Risk Management for balancing between the reduction of risk and the enhancement of community resilience, while ensuring effective response and recovery capabilities; (b) all hazards approach in managing disaster;

Guiding principles.

(No. 38) WEDNESDAY, APRIL 29, 2026 (785) (c) enhancing local disaster risk management capability as the frontline to disaster risk management; (d) respect, ethics and professional standards; (e) national values and principles of governance under Article 10 of the Constitution; (f) commitment in service to the people; (g) protecting vulnerable groups including women, children, persons with disabilities and older persons of the society; and (h) supporting the national government and the county government including the local communities, in disaster risk management.

PART

II

—

ESTABLISHMENT

OF

THE

INSTITUTIONAL

FRAMEWORK ON DISASTER RISK MANAGEMENT

1. 5. (1) There is established the National

Disaster Risk Management Authority. (2) The Authority shall be a body corporate with perpetual succession and a common seal and shall, in its corporate name, be capable of— (a) suing and being sued; (b) taking, purchasing or otherwise acquiring, holding, charging or disposing of movable and immovable property; (c) borrowing and lending money; and (d) doing or performing all other things or acts which may be lawfully done or performed by a body corporate for the furtherance of the provisions of this Act. National Disaster Risk Management Authority.

1. 6. (1) The Headquarters of the Authority

shall be in Nairobi. (2) The Authority may establish such other offices as it considers necessary for the discharge of its functions. Headquarters.

1. 7. The functions of the Authority shall be

to— (a) co-ordinate and implement disaster risk management; (b) co-ordinate and collaborate with relevant regional and international agencies and institutions in disaster risk management; (c) advise the national and county governments on disaster risk management measures; (d) develop and co-ordinate implementation of national and county disaster risk management

Functions of the Authority.

(No. 38) WEDNESDAY, APRIL 29, 2026 (786) (e) policies, strategies, plans, projects, programs and budgets; (f) promote and co-ordinate research in disaster risk management; (g) facilitate capacity building for disaster risk management at both the national and county levels of Government; (h) co-ordinate the provision of psycho-social support to persons affected by a disaster or involved in disaster risk management; (i) co-ordinate and support public awareness campaigns and civic education programmes on disaster risk management; (j) monitor and evaluate disaster risk management programmes and projects; (k) promote linkages with key ministries, community service organizations, international organizations, county, sub- county and community-based disaster risk management entities; (l) co-ordinate the preparation and maintenance of national, county and sub-county disaster risk atlases including data banks and information on potential hazards and vulnerabilities; (m) undertake and co-ordinate routine hazard identification and vulnerability and risk assessments in all sectors; (n) co-ordinate resource mobilization strategies; (o) develop climate change adaptation strategies to prevent, respond and mitigate the effects of disasters arising as a result of climate change; (p) carry out and coordinate national damage and loss assessment in respect to disasters; (q) carry out annual national drill exercises as part of disaster risk management preparedness; (r) submit periodic reports to the Cabinet and the Summit; (s) ensure the implementation of international obligations related to disaster risk management; (t) accredit international volunteers involved in disaster risk management; and (u) perform any other functions as may be prescribed by this Act or any other written law

(No. 38) WEDNESDAY, APRIL 29, 2026 (787)

(v) relevant to the discharge of the functions of the Authority.

1. 8. (1) The Authority shall have all the

powers necessary for the proper performance of its functions under this Act, and, in particular, but without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing, the Authority shall have power to— (a) receive grants, gifts, donations or endowments and make legitimate disbursements therefrom; (b) enter into association with other bodies or organizations within or outside Kenya as the Authority may consider desirable or appropriate and in furtherance of the purpose for which the Authority is established; (c) open a bank account or bank accounts for the funds of the Authority; (d) invest funds of the Authority not immediately required for its purposes; and (e) undertake any activity as may be necessary for the better carrying out of the functions of the Authority. (2) The Authority shall exercise powers required to ensure compliance with any directive issued under its authority and take or cause to be taken such measures including bringing actions in a court of law or tribunal. (3) The Authority may on giving reasonable notice of its intention to take such measures, direct an organization, department, authority, person or body of persons to perform, within such times and in such manner as it shall specify, any other duty imposed by or under this Act or any other written law in relation to enforcement and compliance. (4) Where there is failure to comply with the direction, the Authority may perform or cause to be performed the duties in question and the expense incurred shall be recoverable by the Authority from the organization, department, authority, person or body of persons referred to under subsection (3), by way of a civil debt. Powers of the Authority.

(No. 38) WEDNESDAY, APRIL 29, 2026 (788)

1. 9. (1) The management of the Authority

shall vest in a Board which shall comprise— (a) a chairperson appointed by the President; (b) the Principal Secretary in the Ministry for the time being responsible for matters relating to disaster risk management or a representative designated in writing; (c) the Principal Secretary in the Ministry for the time being responsible for matters relating to finance or a representative designated in writing; (d) the Principal Secretary in the Ministry for the time being responsible for matters relating to defence or a representative designated in writing; (e) the Principal Secretary in the Ministry for the time being responsible for matters relating to drought management or a representative designated in writing; (f) the Chief Executive Officer of the Council of County Governors; (g) one person, who has knowledge and experience in disaster risk management, nominated by the Council of County Governors and appointed by the Cabinet Secretary; (h) a person nominated by the Kenya Red Cross Society and appointed by the Cabinet Secretary; (i) a person nominated by the Kenya Private Sector Alliance and appointed by the Cabinet Secretary; and (j) the Director-General of the Authority who shall be an ex-officio member of the Board. (2) The Chairperson and members of the Board, other than an ex-officio member, shall hold office for a period of three years and shall be eligible for re-appointment for one further term. (3) The Cabinet Secretary shall ensure that not more than two-thirds of the persons appointed under subsection (1) shall be of the same gender.

Composition of the Board.

(No. 38) WEDNESDAY, APRIL 29, 2026 (789)

1. 10. (1) A person shall be qualified for

appointment as a chairperson under section 9 (1)(a), if that person— (a) holds a bachelor’s degree from a university recognized in Kenya; (b) has a distinguished career in a senior management position in either the private or public sector; (c) holds at least ten years’ post-qualification professional experience; and (d) satisfies the requirements of Chapter Six of the Constitution. (2) A person is not qualified for appointment as a chairperson or member of the Board, if that person— (a) is a member of Parliament or County Assembly; (b) is a member of a governing body of a political party; (c) is a member of a Commission established under the Constitution; (d) is an undischarged bankrupt; (e) has been removed from office for contravening the Constitution or any other law; or (f) has, in the conduct of his affairs, not met any statutory obligations. Qualification of the chairperson of the Board.

1. 11. The office of a member of the Board,

other than an ex-officio member, shall become vacant if the member— (a) is unable to perform the functions of his office by reason of mental or physical infirmity; (b) is adjudged bankrupt; (c) is convicted of a criminal offence for a term of imprisonment for a period exceeding six months; (d) is absent from three consecutive meetings of the Board without justifiable cause; (e) resigns, in writing, addressed, in the case of the chairperson to the President, and in the case of any other member, to the Cabinet Secretary; (f) fails to declare his interest in any matter being considered by the Board; (g) violates Chapter Six of the Constitution; or (h) dies. Vacation of office.

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1. 12. The chairperson or member of the Board

may be removed from office for— (a) inability to perform the functions of the office arising out of physical or mental incapacity; (b) gross misconduct or misbehavior; (c) being absent from three consecutive meetings without justifiable cause; (d) incompetence or neglect of duty; (e) failure to declare his interest in any matter being considered by the Board; (f) non-compliance with the requirements of Chapter Six of the Constitution; or (g) any other ground that would lawfully justify removal from office under the terms and conditions of service. Removal from Office.

1. 13. (1) The Board shall be responsible for the

general control of the performance and management of the undertakings and affairs of the Authority, and shall include a general duty to ensure that the functions of the Authority are carried out in an efficient, transparent and ethical manner and that no particular person or body is given undue preference or subjected to any undue disadvantage. (2) The Board shall consider and advise the Cabinet Secretary on the development and maintenance of disaster risk management policy framework and the objectives of the Authority. (3) Without prejudice to the generality of subsections (1) and (2), the Board shall consider and advise the Cabinet Secretary on— (a) legislative proposals relating to disaster risk management; (b) measures for the promotion or support of any county government on disaster risk management; (c) the determination and setting priorities for the general performance targets by the Authority; (d) the consideration and determination of the strategic plan and budget of the Authority; (e) measures to ensure that the disaster risk management measures are initiated and implemented; and (f) such other matters relating to disaster risk management in Kenya. Functions of the Board.

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1. 14. (1) The Board shall have all the powers

necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Authority in accordance with the provisions of this Act and in particular, but without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing, the Board shall have power to— (a) control and oversee the administration of the assets of the Authority in such manner and for such purposes as best promotes the purposes for which the Authority is established; (b) determine the provisions to be made for capital and recurrent expenditure and for reserves of the Authority; (c) in collaboration with the relevant bodies, suspend or limit sale, dispensing, or transportation of firearms explosives or such other products which its deems inappropriate in disaster areas; (d) request any information or documents relating to its mandate from any organization, state department or agency; (e) establish operational or administrative units for the effective coordination of disaster risk management; (f) in collaboration with relevant bodies, co- ordinate the evacuation of people in disaster prone areas; (g) access and utilize available resources of government including warehouses, equipment and such other facilities as may be reasonably necessary for disaster emergency operations; and (h) summon any person whom they may consider necessary in the implementation of their mandate. Powers of the Board.

1. 15. (1) The Board may, from time to time,

establish such committees as it considers necessary for the effective carrying out of its functions under this Act. (2) The Board may by resolution, engage such experts for a specified period as may be necessary to assist in the proper discharge of its functions. Committees of the Board.

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1. 16. The Board may, by resolution either

generally or in any particular case, delegate to any of its committees or to any member, officer, employee or agent of the Board, the exercise of any of the powers or the performance of any of the functions or duties of the Board under this Act or under any other written law. Delegation by the Board.

1. 17. The conduct and regulation of the

business and affairs of the Board shall be as provided in the Schedule, but subject thereto the Board may regulate its own procedure. Conduct of business and affairs of the Board.

1. 18. (1) The chairperson and members of the

Board shall be paid such remuneration or allowances as the Board in consultation with the Salaries and Remuneration Commission may determine. (2) The officers, agents and staff of the Authority shall be paid such remuneration and allowances as the Board in consultation with the Salaries and Remuneration Commission may determine. Remune ration of the Board and staff of the Authority .

1. 19. (1) There shall be a Corporation Secretary

who shall be appointed by the Board on such terms and conditions as the Board may determine and who shall perform such duties as the Board may, from time to time, assign. (2) In the performance of his or her duties under this Act, the Corporation Secretary shall be responsible to the Director-General. Appoint ment of Corporati on Secretary.

1. 20. (1) There shall be a Director-General of

the Authority who shall be competitively recruited and appointed by the Board, and whose terms and conditions of service shall be specified in the instrument of appointment. (2) Without prejudice to the generality of the provisions of subsection (1), the Director-General shall be appointed for a period of three years renewable once. (3) The Director-General shall be the Chief Executive Officer of the Authority and shall be subject to the direction of the Board and shall be responsible to it for the — Director- General.

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(a) implementation of the decisions of the Board; (b) day-to-day administration and management of the affairs of the Board; (c) organization and management of the employees of the Board; and (d) any other function that may be assigned by the Board.

1. 21. (1) A person shall be qualified for

appointment as the Director-General, if such person— (a) is a Kenyan Citizen; (b) holds a bachelor’s degree in a relevant field from a university recognized in Kenya; (c) has had a distinguished career in a senior management position in either the private or public sector; (d) holds at least ten years’ post-qualification professional experience; and (e) satisfies the requirements of Chapter Six of the Constitution. (2) A person is not qualified for appointment as the Director-General, if that person— (a) is a member of Parliament or County Assembly; (b) is a member of a governing body of a political party; (c) is a member of a Commission established under the Constitution; (d) is an undischarged bankrupt; (e) has been removed from office for contravening the Constitution or any other law; or (f) has, in the conduct of his affairs, not met any statutory obligations. Qualificat ion of the Director- General

1. 22. The Board may remove the Director-

General from office in accordance with the terms and conditions of service for— (a) inability to perform the functions of the office arising out of physical or mental incapacity; (b) gross misconduct or misbehavior; (c) incompetence or neglect of duty; (d) non-compliance with the requirements of Chapter Six of the Constitution; or Removal of Director – General.

(No. 38) WEDNESDAY, APRIL 29, 2026 (794) (e) any other ground that would lawfully justify removal from office under the terms and conditions of service.

1. 23. The office of the Director-General shall

become vacant if the Director-General— (a) is unable to perform the functions of office by reason of mental or physical infirmity; (b) is adjudged bankrupt; (c) is removed from office on any of the grounds provided under section 22; (d) resigns, in writing, addressed to the Board; (e) fails to declare his interest in any matter being considered by the Board; (f) violates any of the provisions of Chapter Six of the Constitution; or (g) dies. Vacation of office of the Director General.

1. 24. (1) The Board may appoint such officers,

agents and staff as are necessary for the proper and efficient discharge of the functions of the Authority and upon such terms and conditions of service as the Board may determine. (2) The Board may, on the advice of the Director General, engage on behalf of the Authority, the service of such experts in respect of any of the functions of the Authority in connection with which they are considered to have special competence. (3) In appointing staff under sub-section (1), due regard to ethnic, gender representation, representation of young persons and persons with disabilities shall be taken into account. Staff of the Authority .

1. 25. (1) The common seal of the Authority

shall be kept in the custody of the Corporation Secretary and shall not be used except on the order of the Board. (3) The common seal of the Authority shall, when affixed to a document and authenticated be judicially and officially noticed and unless the contrary is proved, any order or authorization by the Authority under this section shall be presumed to have been duly given. Common Seal of the Authority .

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1. 26. (1) No matter or thing done by a member

of the Board or any officer, employee, or agent of the Authority shall, if the matter or thing is done bona fide for executing the functions, powers or duties of the Authority render the member, officer, employee or agent personally liable to any action, claim or demand whatsoever. (2) Any expenses incurred by any person in any suit or prosecution brought against him in any court, in respect of any act which is done or purported to be done by him under the direction of the Authority, shall, if the court holds that such act was done in bona fide, be paid out of the general funds of the Authority, unless such expenses are recovered by him in such suit or prosecution. (3) The provision of this section shall not relieve the Authority of the liability to compensate or pay damages to any person for any injury to him, his property or any of his interests caused by the exercise of any power conferred by this Act or any other written law or by the failure, wholly or partially of any works. Protectio n from personal liability.

PART

III—CLASSIFICATION

OF

DISASTER, PLANS AND ELECTRONIC

INFORMATION SYSTEMS

1. 27. (1) The Authority shall, in consultation

with county governments, develop an electronic database containing— (a) particulars of— (i) national and county organs involved in disaster risk management; (ii) non-governmental organisations involved in disaster risk management; (iii) disaster risk management experts; (iv) private sector organisations with specialized equipment, skills or knowledge relevant to disaster risk management; (v) private sector voluntary agencies involved in disaster risk management; and

Electronic information system.

(No. 38) WEDNESDAY, APRIL 29, 2026 (796) (vi) foreign non-governmental organisations and international organisations involved in disaster risk management; (b) information concerning disasters including information on— (i) phenomena, occurrences, activities and circumstances that cause or aggravate disasters; (ii) risk factors underlying disasters and means to reduce such risks; (iii) disaggregated data on disaster loss and damage showing the type of disaster, type of impact and its gender, age geographical disaggregation dimensions; (iv) recurring occurrences that result in loss, but which are not classified as disasters under this Act; (v) prevention and mitigation of disaster; (vi) early warning systems; (vii) areas and communities that are vulnerable to disasters; and (viii) indigenous knowledge relating to disaster risk management. (c) the directory of role-players and the names and particulars of their respective contact persons; (d) emergency response resources and capacity in the national and county governments and in the non-government sectors, including the location and size of, and other relevant information relating to— (i) police stations; (ii) hospitals, clinics and other health facilities; (iii) emergency medical services; (iv) public buildings and other facilities that may be used as emergency shelters or hospitals in the event of a disaster; (v) fire-fighting services; and

(No. 38) WEDNESDAY, APRIL 29, 2026 (797) (vi) airports, airstrips, harbours, and railway stations; (e) emergency response resources and capacity in neighbouring states and relevant international relief agencies; (f) emergency preparedness in the different spheres of government; (g) each disaster classified by the Authority under section 29; and (h) disaster risk management research and training facilities. (2) The Authority shall be responsible for the maintenance of the database developed under subsection (1). (3) The Authority shall ensure that the database is accessible to the public in accordance with the Access to Information Act, the Data Protection Act and any other relevant law. (4) Despite subsection (2), the Authority— (a) shall— (i) establish security safeguards to ensure that access to the information on the database does not violate the right to privacy; (ii) subject to the information on the database, restrict access to the information; and (b) may classify parts of the database as restricted areas and limit access to those parts to authorized persons.

Cap.7M.

Cap.411C

1. 28. (1) The Authority shall—

(a) develop and regularly review the national disaster risk management plan and strategy for organs of State and other institutional role-players involved in disaster risk management; (b) collaborate with the counties in co-ordinating the implementation of the policies, plans and strategies; (c) develop guidelines for the integration of the concept and principles of disaster risk management in national and county integrated development plans, protocols, programmes and initiatives; (d) mainstream gender issues in the plans and strategies; and

Disaster risk manageme nt plans.

(No. 38) WEDNESDAY, APRIL 29, 2026 (798) (e) develop a national multi-hazard early warning system and guidelines for its implementation. (2) In developing and reviewing the disaster risk management plan under subsection (1), the Authority shall collaborate with departments, agencies and institutions involved in the implementation of the development plans and the persons involved in the oversight of the implementation of the development plans.

1. 29. (1) Whenever a disaster occurs or

threatens to occur, the Authority shall determine whether the event is a disaster under this Act, and if so, immediately— (a) assess the magnitude and severity or potential magnitude and severity of the disaster; (b) classify the disaster as a county disaster or national disaster in accordance with subsections (4), (5) and (6); and (c) record the prescribed particulars concerning the disaster in the prescribed register. (2) In assessing the magnitude and severity or potential magnitude and severity of a disaster, the Authority— (a) shall consider the information and recommendations concerning the disaster received from a County Committee; and (b) may enlist the assistance of an independent assessor to evaluate the disaster on site. (3) The Authority may reclassify a disaster classified under subsection (l)(b) at any time after consultation with the relevant County Committee, if the magnitude and severity or potential magnitude and severity of the disaster differs from the initial assessment. (4) A disaster is a county disaster, if— (a) it affects a single county; and (b) the county concerned is able to effectively manage it. (5) A disaster is a national disaster if it affects— (a) more than one county; or (b) a single county which is unable to effectively manage it. (6) Until a disaster is classified by the Authority, it shall be deemed to be a county disaster. (7) Despite the classification of a disaster under this section, in designating primary responsibility Classification of disasters.

(No. 38) WEDNESDAY, APRIL 29, 2026 (799) for managing a disaster to a particular level of government, the national and county levels of government may assist each other in managing a disaster. (8) The Cabinet Secretary shall by regulations prescribe the details of classification of a disaster under this section.

1. 30. (1) In the event of a national disaster, the

President may declare a National State of Disaster by notice in the Gazette. (2) The declaration of a National State of Disaster shall contain— (a) a concise statement of the reasons for the declaration; and (b) the duration of the declaration. (3) A National State of Disaster declared under subsection (1)— (a) shall lapse on the date specified in the notice declaring the national state of disaster; (b) may be terminated by the President at any time before the lapse of the period specified in paragraph (a); or (c) may by notice in the Kenya Gazette be extended by the President, any time before the period specified under paragraph (a) lapses. (4) During the subsistence of a declaration of a National State of Disaster, the President may make orders, or the issue directives, concerning— (a) the release of any available resources of the national government including stores, equipment, vehicles and facilities; (b) the release of personnel of a national state organ for rendering of emergency services; (c) the implementation of all or any of the provisions of a national disaster management plan that are applicable in the circumstances; (d) the evacuation to temporary shelters of all or part of the population from the disaster-stricken or threatened area if such action is necessary for the preservation of life; (e) the regulation of traffic to, from or within the disaster-stricken or threatened area; Declaration of National State of Disaster.

(f) (No. 38) WEDNESDAY, APRIL 29, 2026 (800) (g) the regulation of the movement of persons and goods to, from or within the disaster-stricken or threatened area; (h) the authorization of or direction to any person, or any class of persons, to render essential services of a type that that person, or a person of that class, is competent to provide and the provision of reasonable compensation in respect of services so rendered; (i) the regulation of the distribution, sale and availability of essential goods, services and resources; (j) emergency procurement procedures; (k) the imposition of such penalties as may be specified for any contravention of or failure to comply with the provisions of the orders or any directions issued or conditions prescribed by or under the orders or regulations, which may include the confiscation of goods, property or instruments by means of which or in connection with which the offence has been committed: Provided that no order or regulation shall make provision for the imposition of imprisonment for a period of exceeding six months or of a fine exceeding twenty thousand shillings; (l) other steps that may be necessary to prevent an escalation of the disaster, or to alleviate, contain and minimise the effects of the disaster. (5) When a State of National Disaster lapses or is terminated as provided for in this section, any regulation, order or directive made or issued in consequence thereof shall thereby cease to be in force: Provided that nothing in this section shall affect the validity of anything done pursuant to a declaration of a national state disaster or any regulation, order or directive made in consequence thereof, prior to the cessation of the declaration of the state of national disaster, the regulation, order or directive as the case may be; or from any right, privilege, obligation or liability acquired, accrued or incurred thereunder.

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PART IV— COUNTY DISASTER RISK

MANAGEMENT COMMITTEES

1. 31. (1) There is established a County Disaster

Risk Management Committee in each county (2) The members of the County Committee shall comprise— (a) the Governor who shall be the chairperson; (b) the county commissioner who shall be the co- chairperson; (c) the county executive committee member responsible for matters relating to disaster risk management who shall be the secretary; (d) the County Police Commander; (e) two persons, a man and a woman, with knowledge and experience in disaster risk management appointed by the Governor; (f) a person nominated by the Kenya Red Cross Society and appointed by the Governor; (g) a person nominated by the Kenya Chamber of Commerce appointed by the Governor; and (h) a person nominated by the civil society organization with expertise in disaster risk management in the county appointed by the Governor. (3) In appointing members under subsection (2) (e), (f), (g) and (h), the Governor shall observe the principle of gender equality, and representation of the youth, persons with disabilities and the marginalized communities. (4) The members of a County Committee shall elect one of the members appointed under subsection (2) (e), (f), (g) and (h) to be the vice- chairperson. (5) A member of the County Committee appointed under subsection (2) (e), (f), (g) and (h) shall serve for a term of three years and shall be eligible for re-appointment for one further term. (6) The members of the County Committee shall serve on a part-time basis and shall be paid such allowance as may be advised by the Salaries and Remuneration Commission. (7) The County Committee may engage an expert into its membership for effective discharge of its functions. Establishment of County Disaster Risk Management Committees.

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(8) The County Committee shall regulate its own procedure in the conduct of its business and affairs.

1. 32. (1) A County Committee shall—

(a) advise the county government on matters relating to disaster risk management; (b) in collaboration with the County Disaster Risk Management Centres, formulate the county disaster risk management plans and policy in line with the national disaster risk management plan and policy; (c) promote civic education and public awareness, training and capacity building on disaster risk management in the county including in schools; (d) make recommendations to the county government regarding financial matters in relation to disaster risk management; (e) promote an integrated and coordinated approach to disaster risk management in the county, with special emphasis on prevention, mitigation preparedness, response and recovery by other role-players involved in disaster risk management in the county; (f) collaborate with the national government, the Authority and relevant agencies on matters relating to disaster risk management; (g) in collaboration with the County Disaster Risk Management Centre and the Authority, oversee the distribution of relief and emergency supplies; (h) act as a repository of, and conduit for, information concerning– (i) damage and loss arising from disasters; (ii) impending disasters; and (iii) disaster risk management in the county; (i) act as an advisory and consultative body on issues concerning disasters and disaster risk management in the county to— (i) state organs; (ii) the private sector and non-governmental organisations; and (iii) community based organisations, indigenous groups, communities and individuals;

Functions of a County Committee.

(No. 38) WEDNESDAY, APRIL 29, 2026 (803) (j) initiate and facilitate efforts to make funding available for disaster risk management in the county; (k) promote research into the aspects of disaster risk management in the county; devolve disaster risk management measures and structures to sub-county and village level; (l) submit periodic reports to the Authority and the respective county assembly; and (m) carry out any other function as may be expedient to the better carrying out of the functions of the County Committee. (2) The County Executive Committee Member shall, within fourteen days of the preparation of a county disaster risk management plan, submit to the clerk of the county assembly a copy of the disaster risk management plan for tabling before, and approval by the county assembly. (3) The County Executive Committee Member shall, once the county disaster risk management plan is approved, circulate, publish and publicise the plan to the residents of the county, through such means as the County Executive Committee Member may consider appropriate.

1. 33. A County Committee shall have all the

powers necessary for the proper performance of its functions under this Act, and, in particular, but without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing, the Committee shall have power to― (a) receive any grants, gifts, donations or endowments and to make legitimate disbursements there from; (b) delegate some of its powers to a public officer; (c) undertake any activity necessary for the execution of any of its functions; and (d) enter premises to secure the supply of water, access a disaster area or for any other purpose related to disaster prevention or response. Powers of a County Committee.

1. 34. The office of a member of a County

Committee shall become vacant if the member— Vacation of office.

(No. 38) WEDNESDAY, APRIL 29, 2026 (804) (a) resigns by issuing notice in writing addressed to the County Executive; (b) is absent from three consecutive meetings of the County Committee without justifiable cause; (c) is convicted of an offence and sentenced to imprisonment for a term exceeding six months without the option of a fine; (d) is convicted of an offence that constitutes a serious violation of Chapter Six of the Constitution; (e) is unable, by reason of mental or physical infirmity, to discharge his or her functions; or (f) dies.

1. 35. The conduct of business and affairs of a

County Committee shall be as provided in the Second Schedule, but subject thereto the County Committee may regulate its own procedure. Conduct of business and affairs of a County Committee.

1. 36. (1) Each county shall establish a County

Disaster Risk Management Centre which shall be headed by an expert in disaster risk management. (2) The Head of the County Disaster Risk Management Centre shall be competitively recruited by the County Public Service Board. (3) A person shall be qualified for appointment as the Head of a Centre, if that person— (a) holds a bachelor’s degree from a university recognized in Kenya; (b) has a distinguished career in a management position in either the private or public sector; (c) has at least five years’ post-qualification professional experience; and (d) satisfies the requirements of Chapter Six of the Constitution. (4) The functions of the County Disaster Risk Management Centre shall be to— (a) implement the decisions of the County Committee; (b) specialize in matters concerning disaster risk management in the county; (c) promote an integrated and coordinated approach to disaster risk management in the county with special emphasis on prevention and mitigation, by— Establishment of County Disaster Risk Management Centre.

(No. 38) WEDNESDAY, APRIL 29, 2026 (805) (i) county organs; and (ii) other stakeholders involved in disaster risk management in the County; (d) act as a repository of, and conduit for, information concerning disasters, impending disasters and disaster risk management in the county; (e) give advice and guidance by disseminating information regarding disaster risk management; and (f) act as an advisory and consultative body on matters concerning disaster risk management in the County to— (i) county department and agencies; (ii) the private sector and non-governmental organizations; and (iii) communities and individuals; (g) make recommendations to the County Committee and the County Government regarding the funding of Disaster Risk Management in the County; (h) make recommendations to any relevant organ of national or county government— (i) on legislative or policy issues on Disaster Risk Management; (ii) on the alignment of County legislation with this Act and the national Disaster Risk Management policy; or (iii) in the event of a County disaster, on whether a County state of disaster should be declared in accordance with this Act; (i) recommend to the County Public Service Board the recruitment of volunteers; (j) recommend to the County Public Service Board, the recruitment of staff specialised in disaster risk management; (k) promote disaster risk management capacity building, training and education, including in schools and in the county; (l) promote research into all aspects of disaster management in the county; (m) carry out drills and exercises on disaster risk management; (n) undertake resource mobilization;

(No. 38) WEDNESDAY, APRIL 29, 2026 (806) (o) provide advice and guidance by disseminating information regarding disaster risk management in the County and the communities that are vulnerable to disasters; (p) submit periodic reports to the County Committee; and (q) exercise any powers and perform any duties delegated and assigned under this Act. (4) A Centre may engage in any lawful activity in the County, whether alone or together with any other organization, aimed at promoting the proper exercise of its powers or performance of its duties.

1. 37. (1) When a disaster occurs or is

forecasted to occur in a county, a County Committee shall determine whether the event is a disaster under this Act, and, if so, immediately— (a) assess the magnitude and severity or potential magnitude and severity of the disaster; (b) implement applicable contingency plan and emergency procedures; (c) inform the Authority of the— (i) disaster and its initial assessment of the magnitude and severity or potential magnitude and severity of the disaster; and (ii) initial implementation of applicable contingency plan and emergency procedures. (2) In informing the Authority in terms of subsection (l)(c), the County Committee may recommend the appropriate classification of the disaster. Procedure during disaster events.

1. 38. (1) A County Committee shall prepare

and submit its annual report to the county assembly on— (a) its activities during the financial year; (b) results of its monitoring and evaluation of prevention and mitigation initiatives; (c) disasters that occurred during the financial year in the county together with information on— Annual report to county assembly.

(No. 38) WEDNESDAY, APRIL 29, 2026 (807) (i) their classification, magnitude, severity and impacts; and (ii) challenges experienced in dealing with the disasters; and (d) progress on the preparation and regular updating of disaster risk management plans and strategies in the county. (2) A County Committee shall prepare and submit its annual report to the county assembly through the County Executive Committee responsible for disaster risk management within one month after the end of every financial year. (3) The County Executive Committee member responsible for disaster risk management shall within one month after the end of every financial year submit the report to the County Assembly. (4) Upon receipt of the report, the County Assembly shall, within one month, consider the report and may approve it with or without amendments.

1. 39. A county executive committee member

responsible for disaster risk management may, for the purposes of managing a disaster, make guidelines to provide for— (a) measures for disaster prevention, mitigation, preparedness, response and recovery; (b) collection and publication of data relating to disaster risk management; (c) use of listed premises as shelters to manage a disaster; (d) establishment of designated public convergence zones in case of emergencies; (e) activation of a disaster response plan; (f) monitoring and evaluation on matters relating to disaster risk management; (g) conduct of public awareness and civic education on disaster risk management; and (h) establishment of a unit and command structures of volunteers; (i) the minimum requirements for qualification as a volunteer; (j) Guideline s by County Committ ee.

(No. 38) WEDNESDAY, APRIL 29, 2026 (808) (k) the manner in which any member of a Unit of Volunteers may be deployed; (l) the training of volunteers; (m) the use of equipment by volunteers; (n) the defraying of expenses incurred by volunteers; (o) uniforms of volunteers; (p) insignia to be worn by— (i) different units of volunteers; (ii) different components within a unit of volunteers; (iii) different positions of command within a unit of volunteers; (q) the transfer of a volunteer from one unit of volunteers to another unit of volunteers; (r) code of conduct of volunteers; and (s) any other matter that may be necessary in dealing with disaster risk management.

1. 40. (1) A Centre may establish a unit of

volunteers to participate in Disaster Risk Management in a County. (2) Any person that meets the prescribed minimum requirements may apply to enroll as a volunteer in the unit of volunteers of a relevant County. (3) The Centre shall maintain a register of all volunteers enrolled in a unit of volunteers. (4) A Centre that has established a unit of volunteers shall submit the prescribed particulars of any person that has enrolled in terms of subsection (2) to the County Committee within twenty-one days of such enrolment. (5) Upon receipt of an up-to-date register of volunteers from the Centre, the County Committee shall, within twenty-one days, submit the register to the Authority. (6) A unit of volunteers may participate in exercises related to disaster risk management organised by one or more County Disaster Risk Management Centres, or the Authority. (7) This section does not preclude— (a) a County Disaster Centre from calling on persons who are not members of a unit of volunteers to assist the County in dealing with a disaster; or

Disaster Risk Management Volunteers.

(No. 38) WEDNESDAY, APRIL 29, 2026 (809) (b) any number of persons from taking reasonable steps to deal with a disaster in an appropriate manner until a County takes responsibility for that disaster, and, where appropriate, to continue dealing with the disaster under the control of the County.

PART V—FINANCIAL PROVISIONS

1. 41. The funds of the Authority shall consist

of— (a) such monies as may be appropriated by the National Assembly for the purposes of the Authority; (b) such monies as may accrue to the Authority in the performance of its functions under this Act; and (c) all monies from any other source provided for or donated or lent to the Authority. Funds of the Authority .

1. 42. The financial year of the Authority shall

be the period of twelve months ending on the thirtieth June in each year. Financial year.

1. 43. (1) At least three months before the

commencement of a financial year, the Board shall cause to be prepared the estimates of revenue and expenditure of the Authority for that year. (2) The annual estimates shall make provision for all estimated expenditure of the Authority for the financial year, and, in particular, shall make provision for— (a) the payment of salaries, allowances, pension gratuities, and other charges in respect of the staff of the Authority; (b) proper maintenance of the buildings and grounds of the Authority; and Annual estimates.

(No. 38) WEDNESDAY, APRIL 29, 2026 (810) (c) the maintenance, repair and replacement of the utilities, equipment and other property of the Authority. (3) The annual estimates shall be approved by the Board before the commencement of the financial year to which they relate, and shall be submitted to the Cabinet Secretary for approval.

1. 44. (1) The Board shall cause to be kept

proper books and records of account of the income, expenditure and assets of the Authority. (2) Within a period of three months from the end of each financial year, the Authority shall submit to the Auditor General the accounts of the Authority together with— (a) a statement of the income and expenditure of the Authority during that year; and (b) a statement of the assets and liabilities of the Authority on the last day of that year. (3) The accounts of the Authority shall be audited and reported upon in accordance with the Public Audit Act. Accounts and audit.

Cap.412B

1. 45. The Cabinet Secretary responsible for

finance may establish a Disaster Risk Management Fund in accordance with section 24(4) of the Public Finance Management Act.

Establishment of the Disaster Risk Management Fund.

Cap.412 A

1. 46. The Cabinet Secretary responsible for

finance may, by regulation, exempt all materials, articles, goods or equipment intended for the use of disaster management activities from import duty, value added tax, demurrage, port charges and any other tax as may be determined.

Tax Exempti ons on Disaster Managem ent Assistanc e.

(No. 38) WEDNESDAY, APRIL 29, 2026 (811)

PART

VI—MISCELLANEOUS

PROVISIONS

1. 47. (1) The members of the Board, staff or

agents of the Authority shall have a duty to safeguard the information held by the Authority in accordance with the provisions of Article 31 of the Constitution and any other relevant law. (2) The provisions of subsection (1) shall with the necessary modifications apply to the County Committee and the Centres. Duty to protect information held by the Authority, County Committee or Centres.

1. 48. (1) The Authority, County Committee or

Centre shall ensure that the right of access to information guaranteed under Article 35 of the Constitution is subject to the limitations provided under Article 24 of the Constitution and to the nature and extent specified under subsections (2) and (3). (2) An officer, member of staff, or agent of the Authority, County Committee or Centre shall not disclose information acquired in the course of his duties under the Act except, with the written consent of the Board of the Authority, County Committee or Centre, as the case may be. (3) The Authority, County Committee or Centre shall not disclose any information that would in the opinion of the Authority, County Committee or Centre, as the case may be, compromise the integrity of any operations during disaster risk management. Limitation of the right to access information .

1. 49. (1) A person who, without reasonable

cause— (a) obstructs an officer or employee of the Authority, a County Committee, County Disaster Risk Management Centre in the discharge of the person’s functions under this Act; or (b) refuses to comply with any direction given by or on behalf of the Authority or a County Committee under this Act, commits an offence and is liable to a fine not exceeding two million shillings or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding two year, or both.

Obstruction.

(No. 38) WEDNESDAY, APRIL 29, 2026 (812)

(2) In addition to the penalty provided under subsection (1), a person who commits an offence under subsection (1) and the offence results in the loss of life shall on conviction be liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding five years.

1. 50. A person who knowingly makes a claim

which the person knows or has reason to believe to be false, for the purpose of obtaining any relief, assistance, repair, reconstruction or other benefit from the Authority, commits an offence and is liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding one million shillings or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding one year, or to both. False claim.

51. A person who makes or circulates a false alarm knowingly or warning as to a disaster or its severity or magnitude leading to panic, commits an offence and is liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding one million shillings or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding one year, or to both. False alarm.

52. A person who, being entrusted with any money or materials, or otherwise being in custody of money or goods meant for providing relief during a disaster— (a) misappropriates the money or goods; (b) appropriates the money or goods for the person’s own use; or (c) compels another person to misappropriate the money or goods, commits an offence and is liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding ten million shillings or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding ten years, or to both. Misappropria tion of relief money or material.

1. 53. (1) Where an offence under this Act is

committed by a company or body corporate, every person who at the time the offence was committed, was in charge of, and was responsible to the company, for the conduct of the business of the company, as well as the company, shall be deemed to have committed the offence and shall, on conviction, be liable to such penalty as prescribed in this Act for the offence.

Offences by companies.

(No. 38) WEDNESDAY, APRIL 29, 2026 (813) (2) Nothing in subsection (1) shall render any such person liable to any penalty under this Act if that person proves that the offence was committed without the person’s knowledge or that the person exercised due diligence to prevent the commission of the offence. (3) Notwithstanding anything contained in subsection (1), where an offence under this Act has been committed by a company, and it is proved that the offence was committed with the consent or connivance of or is attributable to any neglect on the part of any director, manager, secretary or other officer of the company, such director, manager, secretary or other officer shall also be deemed to have committed that offence and shall, on conviction, be liable to such penalty as prescribed in this Act for the offence. (4) For the purposes of this section— (a) “company” means a body corporate and includes a firm or other association of individuals; and (b) “director”, in relation to a firm, means a partner in the firm.

1. 54. Section 110 of the Public Finance Management

Act is amended by– (a) deleting the word “may” appearing immediately after the words “Executive Committee” and substituting therefor the words “shall” in the headnote; and

(b) deleting the word “may” appearing immediately after the words “Executive Committee” and substituting therefor the word “shall” in subsection (1). Consequential amendments.

PART

VII—PROVISIONS

ON

DELEGATED POWERS

1. 55. (1) The Cabinet Secretary, in consultation

with the Council of Governors, may make Regulations generally for the better carrying into effect of any provisions under this Act. (2) Without prejudice to the foregoing, Regulations made under this section may provide for— (a) measures for disaster prevention, mitigation, preparedness, response and recovery; Regulations.

(No. 38) WEDNESDAY, APRIL 29, 2026 (814) (b) collection and publication of data relating to disaster risk management (c) establishment of designated public convergence zones in case of emergencies; (d) use of listed premises as shelters to manage a disaster; (e) activation of a disaster response plan; (f) conduct of public awareness and civic education on disaster risk management; (g) the forms of authorization issued under this Act; (h) the criteria for classification of a disaster as a national or county disaster; (i) protection of emergency responders during emergency and disaster response; (j) the form and particulars of the register of disasters; or (k) any relevant rules, or standards required to be prescribed. (3) For the purposes of Article 94(6) of the Constitution— (a) the purpose and objective of delegation under this section is to enable the Cabinet Secretary to make regulations to provide for the better carrying into effect of the provisions of this Act and to enable the Authority to discharge its functions more effectively; (b) the authority of the Cabinet Secretary to make regulations under this Act shall be limited to bringing into effect the provisions of this Act and to fulfil the objectives specified under this section; (c) the principles and standards applicable to the regulations made under this section are those set out in the Interpretation and General Provisions Act and the Statutory Instruments Act.

PART

VIII—SAVING

AND

TRANSITIONAL PROVISIONS

1. 55. (1) A public officer currently serving in the

National Disaster Operations Centre and National Disaster Management Unit shall be seconded to the Authority for a period not exceeding three years. Transfer of Staff.

(No. 38) WEDNESDAY, APRIL 29, 2026 (815) (2) A public officer in subsection (1) shall either— (a) opt to return to the parent institution; or (b) apply to be considered for employment by the Authority.

1. 57. (1) All property, except such property as the

Cabinet Secretary may specify in writing, which, immediately before the commencement of this Act, was vested in the Government for the use of the National Disaster Operations Centre and the National Disaster Management Unit, for the purpose of disaster risk management, shall, on the date of commencement of this Act, vest in the Authority subject to all interests, liabilities, charges, obligations and trusts affecting that property. (2) All legal proceedings and claims pending in respect of actions and activities to which this Act apply shall be continued or enforced by or against the Authority in the same manner as they would have been continued or enforced by or against the Government had this Act not been enacted. Transfer of assets and liabilities

SCHEDULE

(s. 17)

PROVISIONS AS TO THE CONDUCT OF BUSINESS

AND AFFAIRS OF THE BOARD

1. 1. (1) The Board shall meet not less than four times in every financial

year and not more than four months shall elapse between the date of one meeting and the date of the next meeting. (2) Notwithstanding the provisions of subparagraph (1), the chairperson shall, and upon requisition in writing by at least five members convene a special meeting of the Board at any time for the transaction of the business of the Board. (3) Unless three quarters of the total members of the Board otherwise agree, at least fourteen days’ written notice of every meeting of the Board shall be given to every member of the Board. (4) The quorum for the conduct of the business of the Board shall be one half of all the members. (5) The chairperson shall preside at every meeting of the Board at which he is present but, in his absence, the members present shall elect one of their numbers to preside, who shall, with respect to that meeting and the business transacted thereat, have all the powers of the chairperson. (6) Unless a unanimous decision is reached, a decision on any matter before the Board shall be by a majority of votes of the members present and voting and, in the case of an equality of votes, the chairperson or the person presiding shall have a casting vote. Convening of meetings.

(No. 38) WEDNESDAY, APRIL 29, 2026 (816) (7) Subject to subparagraph (4), no proceedings of the Board shall be invalid by reason only of a vacancy among the members thereof.

1. 2. (1) If a member is directly or indirectly interested in any contract,

proposed contract or other matter before the Board and is present at a meeting of the Board at which the contract, proposed contract or other matter is the subject of consideration, that member shall, at the meeting and as soon as practicable after the commencement thereof, disclose the fact and shall not take part in the consideration or discussion of, or vote on, any questions with respect to the contract or other matter, or be counted in the quorum of the meeting during consideration of the matter: Provided that, if the majority of the members present are of the opinion that the experience or expertise of such member is vital to the deliberations of the meeting, the Board may permit the member to participate in the deliberations subject to such restrictions as it may impose but such member shall not have the right to vote on the matter in question. (2) A disclosure of interest made under this paragraph shall be recorded in the minutes of the meeting at which it is made. (3) A member of the Board who contravenes subparagraph (1) commits an offence and is liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding six months, or to a fine not exceeding one hundred thousand shillings, or both. Disclosure of interest by Board Members.

1. 3. Any contract or instrument which, if entered into or executed by a

person not being a body corporate, would not require to be under seal, may be entered into or executed on behalf of the Board by any person generally or specially authorized by the Board for that purpose. Execution of instruments.

1. 4. The Board shall cause minutes of all resolutions and proceedings of

meetings of the Board to be entered in books kept for that purpose. Minutes.

LIMITATION OF DEBATE

The House resolved on Wednesday, February 11, 2026 as follows—

Limitation of Debate on Motions

III. THAT, pursuant to the provisions of Standing Order 97(1), this House orders that each speech in a debate on any Motion, including a Special motion be limited in the following manner: A maximum of three hours with not more than twenty (20) minutes for the Mover and ten (10) minutes for any other Member speaking, except the Leader of the Majority Party and the Leader of the Minority Party, who shall be limited to a maximum of fifteen (15) minutes each, and that ten (10) minutes before the expiry of the time, the Mover shall be called upon to reply; and that priority in speaking be accorded to the Leader of the Majority Party, the Leader of the Minority Party and the Chairperson of the relevant Departmental Committee, in that order.

Limitation of Debate on Bills sponsored by Parties or Committees

IV. THAT, each speech in a debate on Bills sponsored by a Committee, the Leader of the Majority Party or the Leader of the Minority Party be limited as follows:- A maximum of forty five (45) minutes for the Mover, in moving and fifteen minutes (15) in replying, a maximum of thirty (30) minutes for the Chairperson of the relevant Committee (if the Bill is not sponsored by the relevant Committee), and a maximum of ten (10) minutes for any other Member speaking, except the Leader of the Majority Party and the Leader of the Minority Party, who shall be limited to a maximum of fifteen minutes (15) each (if the Bill is not sponsored by either of them); and that priority in speaking be accorded to the Leader of the Majority Party, the Leader of the Minority Party and the Chairperson of the relevant Departmental Committee, in that order.

Limitation of Debate on Other Committee Reports V. THAT, each speech in a debate on Other Committee Reports, including a Report of a Joint Committee of the Houses of Parliament or any other Report submitted to the House for which limitation of time has not been specified, be limited as follows:- A maximum of two and a half hours, with not more than twenty (20) minutes for the Mover in moving and five (5) minutes for any other Member speaking, including the Leader of the Majority Party and the Leader of the Minority Party and the Chairperson of the relevant Committee (if the Committee Report is not moved by the Chairperson of the relevant Committee), and that ten (10) minutes before the expiry of the time, the Mover shall be called upon to reply; and further that priority in speaking shall be accorded to the Leader of the Majority Party and the Leader of the Minority Party, in that order.

……....../Notice Paper*

NOTICE PAPER

Tentative business for

Thursday, April 30, 2026 (Published pursuant to Standing Order 38(1))

It is notified that the following business is tentatively scheduled to appear in the Order Paper for Thursday, April 30, 2026 –

A. SPECIAL MOTION-

CONSIDERATION

OF

NOMINEES

FOR

APPOINTMENT

TO

THE

NATIONAL

COHESION

AND

INTEGRATION

COMMISSION

(The Chairperson, Select Committee on National Cohesion and Equal Opportunity) (Subject to tabling of Committee Report and Notice of Motion)

B. MOTION –

APPROVAL OF THE MEDIATED VERSION OF THE

NATIONAL DISASTER RISK MANAGEMENT BILL

(NATIONAL ASSEMBLY BILL NO. 24 OF 2023)

(The Co-Chairperson, Mediation Committee on the National Disaster Risk Management Bill, 2023)

(If not concluded on Wednesday, April 28, 2026 – Afternoon sitting)

C. MOTION – REPORT ON PUBLIC PETITION NO. 021 OF 2025

REGARDING ACCESS TO HEALTHCARE BY CANCER

PATIENTS IN THE COUNTRY

(The Chairperson, Departmental Committee on Health)

(If not concluded on Wednesday, April 28, 2026 – Afternoon sitting)

D. MOTION – REPORT ON INSPECTION VISIT TO THE EAST

AFRICAN SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY COMMISSION

AND THE EAST AFRICAN HEALTH RESEARCH

COMMISSION

(The Chairperson, Committee on Regional Integration)

(If not concluded on Wednesday, April 28, 2026 – Afternoon sitting)

E. MOTION – REPORT OF THE KENYA DELEGATION TO THE 151ST

ASSEMBLY OF THE INTER-PARLIAMENTARY UNION

(IPU) AND RELATED MEETINGS

(The Leader of the Delegation)

(If not concluded on Wednesday, April 28, 2026 – Afternoon sitting)

F. MOTION – REPORT

ON

THE

STATUS

OF

REPORTS

ON

PETITIONS AND RESOLUTIONS

(The Chairperson, Committee on Implementation)

(If not concluded on Wednesday, April 28, 2026 – Afternoon sitting)

G. MOTION – REPORT ON INSPECTION VISITS TO FOURTEEN (14)

SPECIAL NEEDS SCHOOLS IN SPECIFIED COUNTIES

(The Chairperson, Select Committee on National Cohesion and Equal Opportunity)

(If not concluded on Wednesday, April 28, 2026 – Afternoon sitting)

H. ADJOURNMENT OF THE HOUSE IN ACCORDANCE WITH THE

CALENDAR

........../Appendix*

APPENDIX

NOTICE OF PETITIONS, QUESTIONS &

STATEMENTS

ORDER NO. 7 - STATEMENTS

It is notified that, pursuant to the provisions of Standing Order 44(2)(c), the following Statements will be: -

(i) requested –

No. Subject Member Relevant Committee

1. 1. Shortage of fertiliser in Trans-

Nzoia County

Hon. Lillian Siyoi, M.P. (Trans Nzoia County) Agriculture & Livestock

1. 2. State of road infrastructure in

Samburu County Hon. Pauline Lenguris, M.P. (Samburu County) Roads and Infrastructure

(ii) responded to –

No. Subject Member Relevant Committee

1. 1. Effects of floods experienced

across the country Hon. Edith Nyenze, M.P. (Kitui West) Administration & Internal Security